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CGFNS Test Breakdown [by landon]

Fri, 11 Jun 2010 08:43:06 -0000

Online Education Center:: CGFNS Test Breakdown

CGFNS Test Breakdown

The CGFNS Certification Program is designed specifically for first-level, general nurses educated and licensed outside the United States who wish to assess their chances of passing the U.S. registered nurse licensing exam, the NCLEX-RN® examination, and attaining licensure to practice as registered nurses within the United States.

The program is comprised of three parts: a credentials review of the nurse's education, registration and licensure; the CGFNS Qualifying Exam, a one-day qualifying exam testing nursing knowledge; and an English language proficiency exam. Upon successful completion of all three elements of the program, the applicant is awarded a CGFNS Certificate.

The CGFNS, Commission on Graduates of Foreign Nursing Schools, administers a Certification Program (CP) for first level general, registered nurses who have been educated outside the United States who want to now practice nursing in the United States. The Certification Program consists of a credentials review, an English language proficiency exam, and a CGFNS qualifying exam. The qualifying exam tests nursing knowledge and the understanding of how nursing is taught and practiced in the United States.

To apply for the Certification Program and the CGFNS qualifying examination, there are three methods that can be used. One can apply online at the CGFNS website. To do this, one must first create an online account, and then the application can be filled out online. The application can also be downloaded from the application handbook that can also be found on the CGFNS website. Or, one can contact CGFNS directly, by mail or by phone, to request a copy of the application and the accompanying handbook. Specific requirements and information needed for the application can be found online, as well as application deadlines for specific testing dates. The fees for the CGFNS qualifying exam must also be paid at the time of application, and this exam fee also contains the fee for the credential review. Specific fee information can also be found online. When applying to take the CGFNS qualifying exam, an applicant indicates their preferred test date and location in the applicant, with backup choices. Test dates and location information can also be found online on the CGFNS website. Once the application to take the CGNFS qualifying exam is accepted, the applicant will receive a letter of approval in the mail from CGNFS. This letter will indicate that the applicant has been scheduled (rostered) to take the examination. The exam date and location will be given in the letter. The exam date and location can also be checked online on the CGFNS website, and it is advised to print a copy of this online schedule as a confirmation.

The CGFNS qualifying examination is a paper and pencil examination. It contains all multiple choice questions and is given in two parts. The first part, or exam booklet, is called “Nursing, part I”. This part of the exam contains 150 multiple choice questions, and test-takers have two hours and thirty minutes to complete this portion of the examination. This part is given in the morning of the test day. After completing part I of the examination, test-takers are then given a lunch break. After the lunch break, a second exam booklet, “Nursing, part II”, is given to test-takers. This booklet contains 121 questions, and test-takers are given two hours to complete this portion of the examination. The CGFNS qualifying examination tests one's knowledge of nursing principles and skills and one's understanding of how nursing is taught and practiced in the United States today. The CGFNS qualifying examination is also designed to help one predict their likelihood that they will pass the NCLEX-RN examination in the future.

Approximately five to six weeks after taking the CGFNS qualifying examination, CGFNS will send out letters with test results to all test-takers. It can take up to four additional weeks for test-takers internationally to receive these letters. These letters tell candidates if they passed or failed the examination, and they also give a numerical score and a passing score for their examination. The test reports also contain a diagnostic profile with information on how the candidate performed in four different subject areas, or client needs categories: safe and effective care environment, health promotion and maintenance, psychosocial integrity, and physiological integrity. Score reports can also be viewed online on the CGFNS website.

To prepare for the CGFNS qualifying examination, reviewing what has already been learned in the candidate's nursing education courses is helpful. Topics to review for the examination include: medical nursing care of the adult, surgical nursing care of the adult, maternal and infant nursing, nursing care of children, psychiatric and mental health nursing, and the nursing process and patient needs that are taught in the United States. Also, familiarization with testing policies and test structure is imperative before taking the CGFNS qualifying examination. During the examination, pacing is crucial. It is important to attempt to answer all test items that are presented during the allotted time frame. Not answering test items can have an adverse affect on one's score. Also, since the examination is a paper and pencil test, it is important to mark all answers clearly so there is no confusion in the scoring of the exam.

Click Here for CGFNS Practice

CGFNS Online Course [by landon]

Fri, 11 Jun 2010 08:33:31 -0000

Online Education Center:: CGFNS Online Course

Online Education Center | Biochemistry | Behavioral Science

CGFNS Online Course

If you don't need to go through our CGFNS online course, click here for basic information about the CGFNS test.

Everyone learns information and prepares for the test in different ways. Most people will use a CGFNS Test Study Guide as their basic method of test preparation. Others may use a set of CGFNS Test Flashcards to help them prepare on a more indepth basis for their test. However, regardless of your preferred study method, you are ultimately responsible for how prepared you'll be on test day.

Our CGFNS course is heavily focused on "self-help." Here's why:

A) If you are intimately involved in both structuring and completing your CGFNS test preparation, you will have a better understanding of the experience and reap better CGFNS results and

B) We recognize that there is great diversity in learning styles. By leaving the CGFNS test preparation solution in a more open, relaxed format, we believe we can make the diversity in learning styles a strength rather than a weakness.

We have provided the CGFNS resources and the tools. The rest is up to you- the best teacher is the person who knows you best- YOU!

Here are the recommended steps you should take in using our modular test prep system for the CGFNS:

1. Take the self assessment module quizzes below (make notes of your scores and remember which revealed significant gaps in your learning):

Self-Assessment Modules:

Online Education Center | Biochemistry | Behavioral Science

Behavioral Science Practice Questions [by landon]

Fri, 11 Jun 2010 08:21:18 -0000

Online Education Center:: Behavioral Science Practice Questions

Online Education Center | Biochemistry | Behavioral Science

Behavioral Science Practice Questions

1. Which of the following is not one of the key steps in the grief process?

A. Denial
B. Anger
C. Bargaining
D. Rejection

2. Which of the following matches the definition: covering up a weakness by stressing a desirable or stronger trait?

A. Compensation
B. Projection
C. Rationalization
D. Dysphoria

3. Which of the following waveforms is most commonly found with light sleepers?

A. Theta
B. Alpha
C. Beta
D. Zeta

4. Which of the following months matches with an infant first having the ability to sit-up independently?

A. 4 months
B. 6 months
C. 8 months
D. 10 months

5. Object permanence for toddlers develops in this age range?

A. 5-10 months
B. 10-14 months
C. 12-24 months
D. 15-24 months

6. Which of the following matches the definition: attributing of our own unwanted trait onto another person?

A. Compensation
B. Projection
C. Rationalization
D. Dysphoria

7. Which of the following matches the definition: the justification of behaviors using reason other than the real reason?

A. Compensation
B. Projection
C. Rationalization
D. Dysphoria

8. Which of the following matches the definition: response to severe emotion stress resulting in involuntary disturbance of physical functions?

A. Conversion disorder
B. Depressive reaction
C. Bipolar disorder
D. Alzheimer's disease

9. Which of the following waveforms is most commonly found when you are awake?

A. Theta
B. Alpha
C. Beta
D. Zeta

10. The REM sleep cycle occur approximately every ____ minutes?

A. 45
B. 60
C. 75
D. 90

11. Which of the following reflexes is not found at birth?

A. Babinski
B. Palmar
C. Moro
D. Flexion

12. Parallel play for toddlers develops in this age range?

A. 5-10 months
B. 10-14 months
C. 12-24 months
D. 24-48 months

13. Which of the following is not a sign of anxiety?

A. Dyspnea
B. Hyperventilation
C. Moist mouth
D. GI symptoms

14. Which of the following best describes a person that is completely awake falling asleep spontaneously?

A. Cataplexy
B. Narcolepsy
C. Transitional sleep
D. REM absence

15. Which of the following best describes a person that is unable to tell you were there hand or foot is?

A. Autotopagnosia
B. Cataplexy
C. Ergophobia
D. Anosognosia

16. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a panic disorder?

A. Nausea
B. Excessive perspiration
C. Urination
D. Chest pain

17. Which of the following categories would a 70 year old adult be placed in?

A. Intimacy vs. Isolation
B. Generativitiy vs. Stagnation
C. Integrity vs. Despair
D. Longevity vs. Guilt

18. Which of the following categories would a 60 year old adult be placed in?

A. Intimacy vs. Isolation
B. Generativitiy vs. Stagnation
C. Integrity vs. Despair
D. Longevity vs. Guilt

19. Which of the following categories would a 20 year old adult be placed in?

A. Intimacy vs. Isolation
B. Generativitiy vs. Stagnation
C. Integrity vs. Despair
D. Longevity vs. Guilt

20. Which of the following describes a person using words that have no known meaning?

A. Neologisms
B. Neolithic
C. Verbalism
D. Delusional blocking

Answer Key
1. D
2. A
3. A
4. B
5. A
6. B
7. C
8. A
9. C
10. D
11. D
12. D
13. C
14. A
15. A
16. C
17. C
18. B
19. A
20. A

Online Education Center | Biochemistry | Behavioral Science

Biochemistry Practice Questions [by landon]

Fri, 11 Jun 2010 08:19:04 -0000

Online Education Center:: Biochemistry Practice Questions

Online Education Center | Biochemistry | Behavioral Science

Biochemistry Practice Questions

1. Which of the following is the mRNA start codon in most cases?

A. UAA
B. AGU
C. AUG
D. UGA

2. Which of the types of RNA is the smallest?

A. mRNA
B. tRNA
C. rRNA

3. Which of the following is not considered a pyrimidine?

A. C
B. T
C. U
D. G

4. Which of the following is paired correctly?

A. A-G
B. C-G
C. A-U
D. G-T

5. Which of the following characterizes a Western blot?

A. Antibody/protein hybridization
B. DNA/RNA combination
C. RNA transcription
D. Polymerase chain reaction

6. Which of the following is the approximate prevalence ratio for cystic fibrosis?

A. 1: 25,000
B. 1: 5,000
C. 1: 2,000
D. 1: 800

7. Which of the following divisions of cell growth precedes Mitosis in the cell cycle?

A. G
B. G
C. S
D. G₀

8. Down syndrome is directly linked to a genetic abnormality of chromosome?

A. XXII
B. XXI
C. XIIX
D. XV

9. Which of the following is a characteristic of the Hardy-Weinberg law?

A. Mating between species occurs at a set rate.
B. Migration is a considerable factor.
C. Mutation occurs at the locus
D. Genotype selection does not occur at the locus

10. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Hurler's syndrome?

A. Autosomal recessive condition
B. Associated with delayed mental development
C. Spasticity
D. Corneal deficits

11. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Krabbe's disease?

A. Autosomal recessive condition
B. Spasticity
C. Nausea
D. Optic nerve deficits

12. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Fabry's disease?

A. X-linked disease
B. Low levels of alpha-galactosidase A
C. Profound muscular weakness
D. Increased levels of ceramide trihexoside

13. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Sickle Cell Anemia?

A. More common in African Americans
B. Autosomal dominant
C. Mutation in beta-globin
D. Intense chronic pain

14. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the Southern blot?

A. DNA hybridization
B. Use of a filter and film combination
C. Activated by antigen/antibody reactions
D. Uses a DNA sample

15. Which of the following is not a characteristic of S-adenosyl-methionine?

A. May be associated phosphocreatine
B. Considered a rate limiting enzyme of glycolysis
C. Aids in the transfer of methyl
D. Byproduct of Methionine and ATP combination

16. Which of the following is not an activated carrier?

A. ATP
B. SAM
C. TPP
D. GMP

17. The end product of the TCA cycle produces ____ NADH.

A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6

18. How many ATP are required to transform pyruvate into glucose?

A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8

19. Which of the following is not a derivative of the amino acid (Tryptophan)?

A. Melatonin
B. Serotonin
C. Creatine
D. Niacin

20. Pompe's disease is a type ___ glycogen storage disease.

A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV

Answer Key
1. C
2. B
3. D
4. B
5. A
6. C
7. A
8. B
9. D
10. C
11. C
12. C
13. B
14. C
15. B
16. D
17. A
18. B
19. C
20. B

Online Education Center | Biochemistry | Behavioral Science

Circulation Practice Questions [by landon]

Fri, 11 Jun 2010 08:16:20 -0000

Online Education Center:: Circulation Practice Questions

Online Education Center | Biochemistry | Behavioral Science

Circulation Practice Questions

1. Prothrombin is a ____ globulin and is produced by the _____.

A. Alpha, Kidney
B. Alpha, Liver
C. Beta, Kidney
D. Beta, Liver

2. The right coronary artery divides to form the posterior interventricular artery and the ___ artery.

A. Marginal
B. LVC
C. RVC
D. LAD

3. Blood flowing into the cardiac veins enters the _______ next.

A. Coronary Sinus
B. Left Ventricle
C. Right Ventricle
D. Left Atrium

4. If you are using a stethoscope and trying to detect the tricuspid valve which of the following would be the best location?

A. Within 2 inches of the xyphoid process
B. On the right side of the sternum
C. On the left side of the sternum near the midpoint
D. On the left side of the sternum near the midpoint of the sixth rib

5. Which of the following occurs during ventricular systole?

A. Increased aortic pressure
B. Increased ventricular volume
C. Dup heart sound
D. P wave

6. Which of the following occurs during ventricular diastole?

A. Increased aortic pressure
B. Increased ventricular volume
C. Lub heart sound
D. T wave

7. The innermost layer of a blood vessel is lined with _______ ______ cells

A. Simple squamous
B. Stratified squamous
C. Simple cuboidal epithelium
D. Stratified cuboidal epithelium

8. Angiotension can directly cause the release of ____ from the adrenal cortex.

A. Renin
B. Aldosterone
C. Calcitonin
D. Thyroxine

9. Cardiac output is the product of ____ and ____.

A. HR and Disastolic pressure
B. HR and Stroke Volume
C. HR and EF
D. Diastolic and Systolic pressure

10. Pulmonary edema is most like associated with a failing _____ _____.

A. Right atrium
B. Left atrium
C. Right ventricle
D. Left ventricle

11. Which of the following is the first branch off the aortic arch?

A. Common carotid
B. Brachiocephalic
C. Right Subclavian
D. Thoracic

12. The brachiocephalic artery divides to form the right common carotid and the ____ ____ artery.

A. Left subclavian
B. Right subclavian
C. Left common carotid
D. Right thoracic artery

13. Which of the following arteries creates the left spenic, hepatic and gastric arteries?

A. Left sacral artery
B. Celiac artery
C. Suprarenal artery
D. Phrenic artery

14. Which of the following is not considered a major branch off of the descending thoracic aorta?

A. Mediastinal artery
B. Renal artery
C. Bronchial artery
D. Posterior intercostals artery

15. Which of the following is not considered a major branch off of the abdominal aorta?

A. Phrenic artery
B. Common iliac artery
C. Gonadal artery
D. Mediastinal artery

16. Which of the following is not considered a major branch off of the femoral artery?

A. Superficial pudendal arteries
B. Deep external pudendal arteries
C. Superficial circumflex iliac artery
D. Deep circumflex iliac artery

17. Which of the following is not considered a tributary of the portal vein?

A. Inferior mesenteric vein
B. Splenic vein
C. Left gastric vein
D. Subclavian vein

18. Inside the cranial cavity the vertebral arteries form the ____ artery.

A. Basilar
B. Common Carotid
C. MCA
D. PCA

19. Pulse pressure (pp) is considered the _____.

A. Difference between the systolic and diastolic pressure
B. The sum of the systolic and diastolic pressure
C. The inverse of the blood pressure
D. Half of the systolic pressure

20. _____ nerves can be found joining the SA and AV nodes in the heart.

A. Accelerator
B. Phrenic
C. Thoracic
D. Gastric

Answer Key
1. B
2. A
3. A
4. A
5. A
6. B
7. A
8. B
9. B
10. D
11. B
12. B
13. B
14. B
15. D
16. D
17. D
18. A
19. A
20. A

Online Education Center | Biochemistry | Behavioral Science

Diabetes Practice Questions [by landon]

Fri, 11 Jun 2010 08:13:15 -0000

Online Education Center:: Diabetes Practice Questions

Online Education Center | Biochemistry | Behavioral Science

Diabetes Practice Questions

1. Insulin inhibits the release of _______.

A. Glucagon
B. ADH
C. Beta cells
D. Somatostatin

2. Which of the following is caused by insulin release?

A. Increased breakdown of fats
B. Increase breakdown of proteins
C. Decreased blood sugar
D. Causes glucose to be phosphorylated in kidney

3. Glucagon causes increased blood sugar and causes slow breakdown of glycogen in the liver.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

4. As blood glucose decreases glucagon is inhibited.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

5. Glucagon increases blood levels of glucose by causing liver to breakdown glycogen.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

6. Which of the following is not true about Type I DM?

A. May be linked to autoimmunity
B. Onset usually prior to age 20
C. Beta islet cells destroyed
D. Does not require insulin injections

7. Which of the following is not true about Type II DM?

A. Considered adult onset diabetes
B. Cause unknown may be due to genetics
C. Require insulin 80% of cases
D. May take a drug that sensitize cells or increase insulin release

8. Which of the following is not an effect of diabetes?

A. Small vessel occlusion
B. Necrosis of extremities
C. Ketone Body production
D. Decreased fat metabolism

9. Which of the following is not an indicator of a hypoglycemic condition?

A. Fatigue
B. Poor appetite
C. Tachycardia
D. Confusion

10. Which of the following is not an adverse effect of oral hypoglycemics?

A. Hypoglycemia
B. Headache
C. Rashes
D. Projectile vomiting

11. Which of the following is not an adverse effect of glucagon?

A. Allergic reaction
B. Vomiting
C. Nausea
D. Fever

12. Which of the following drugs may be given as an immunosuppressant soon after onset of Type I Diabetes?

A. Torsemide
B. Cyclosporine
C. Clofibrate
D. Ceftriaxone

13. Which of the following is not considered an endocrine hormone?

A. Renin
B. Insulin
C. Glucagon
D. Somatostatin

14. What type of cells secrete glucagon?

A. Beta cells
B. Alpha cells
C. Plasma cells
D. Acinar cells

15. What type of cells secrete insulin?

A. Beta cells
B. Alpha cells
C. Plasma cells
D. Acinar cells

16. Which of the following would not be considered an acute effect of diabetes mellitus?

A. Polyuria
B. Weight gain
C. Polydipsia
D. Polyphagia

17. Which of the following is not an accurate test for diabetes?

A. Glucose tolerance test
B. HbA
C. Fasting serum glucose
D. Fasting glucagon test

18. Which of the following is not an indicator of diabetic ketoacidosis?

A. Hyperthermia
B. Nausea/Vomiting
C. Slow and shallow breathing
D. Psychosis leading to dementia

19. Which of the following is not related to a chronic diabetes mellitus condition?

A. Atherosclerosis
B. Neuropathy
C. Glaucoma
D. Hypotension

20. Which of the following conditions is not linked to diabetic ketoacidosis?

A. Cerebral edema
B. Arrhythmias
C. Peptic ulcers
D. Mucormycosis

Answer Key
1. A
2. C
3. B
4. B
5. A
6. D
7. C
8. D
9. B
10. D
11. D
12. B
13. A
14. B
15. A
16. B
17. D
18. C
19. D
20. C

Online Education Center | Biochemistry | Behavioral Science

Gastrointestinal Practice Questions [by landon]

Fri, 11 Jun 2010 08:10:57 -0000

Online Education Center:: Gastrointestinal Practice Questions

Online Education Center | Biochemistry | Behavioral Science

Gastrointestinal Practice Questions

1. Which of the following is not a specific element of duodenal ulcers?

A. Primarily affects males
B. Occasional malignancy
C. Can lead to weight gain
D. Affects people over 65

2. Which of the following is not a specific element of Hepatitis C?

A. Vaccine available
B. May be transmitted with sexual contact
C. Inflammation of the liver
D. Lifetime carrier

3. Which of the following Vitamins is not stored in the Liver?

A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D

4. Which of the following is not a contributor to a condition of ascites?

A. Elevated levels of aldosterone
B. Hypertension
C. Low levels of albumin
D. Elevated levels of angiotension I

5. Which of the following drugs is a histamine blocker and reduces levels of gastric acid?

A. Omeprazole (Prilosec)
B. Metoclopramide (Reglan)
C. Cimetidine (Tagamet)
D. Magnesium Hydroxide (Maalox

6. Which of the following drugs is an antacid?

A. Omeprazole (Prilosec)
B. Metoclopramide (Reglan)
C. Cimetidine (Tagamet)
D. Magnesium Hydroxide (Maalox)

7. Which of the following drugs is a dopamine antagonist?

A. Omeprazole (Prilosec)
B. Metoclopramide (Reglan)
C. Cimetidine (Tagamet)
D. Magnesium Hydroxide (Maalox)

8. Another name for the Whipple procedure is a ________.

A. Cholangiopancreatography
B. Pancreatoduodenectomy
C. Cholangiogram
D. Cholecystogram

9. Which of the following microorganisms has been linked to Parotitis?

A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Schistosoma
C. Wucheria bancrofti
D. Trypanosoma cruzi

10. What type of cell releases somatostatin?

A. b cells
B. a cells
C. plasma cells
D. D cells

11. What type of cell releases glucagon?

A. b cells
B. a cells
C. plasma cells
D. D cells

12. What type of cell releases insulin?

A. b cells
B. a cells
C. plasma cells
D. D cells

13. Another name for the (Billroth II)procedure is a ________.

A. Gastrojejunostomy
B. Gastroduodenostomy
C. Cholangiogram
D. Cholecystogram

14. Another name for the (Billroth I)procedure is a ________.

A. Gastrojejunostomy
B. Gastroduodenostomy
C. Cholangiogram
D. Cholecystogram

15. Which of the following arteries supplies blood primarily to the Midgut?

A. IMA
B. Celiac
C. SMA
D. Axillary

16. Which of the following is not considered a right of medication?

A. Dose
B. Time
C. Route
D. Limit

17. Another name for the Myenteric plexus is the ________.

A. Submucosal plexus
B. Branchial plexus
C. Auerbach's plexus
D. Lumbar plexus

18. Which of the following enzyme breaks down starches to maltose.

A. Amylase
B. Lipase
C. Trypsinogen
D. Pepsin

19. Which of the following is not considered an H₂ blocker?

A. Ranitidine (Zantac)
B. Famotidine (Pepcid)
C. Cimetidine (Tagament)
D. Sucralfate (Carafate)

20. Which of the following drugs aids in gastric emptying?

A. Cisapride (Propulsid)
B. Ranitidine (Zantac)
C. Famotidine (Pepcid)
D. Tranylcypromine sulfate (Parnate)

Answer Key
1. D
2. A
3. C
4. D
5. C
6. D
7. B
8. B
9. A
10. D
11. B
12. A
13. A
14. B
15. C
16. D
17. C
18. A
19. D
20. A

Online Education Center | Biochemistry | Behavioral Science

Gross Anatomy Practice Questions [by landon]

Fri, 11 Jun 2010 08:08:40 -0000

Online Education Center:: Gross Anatomy Practice Questions

Online Education Center | Biochemistry | Behavioral Science

Gross Anatomy Practice Questions

1. Which of the following is not a muscle identified in the rotator cuff?

A. Teres Major
B. Teres Minor
C. Infraspinatus
D. Supraspinatus

2. Which of the following is not a component of the unhappy triad?

A. MCL
B. PCL
C. ACL
D. Medial Meniscus

3. Which of the following is not included in the femoral triangle?

A. Femoral Artery
B. Femoral Nerve
C. Femoral Vein
D. Femoral Ligament

4. Which of the following is not a component of the carotid sheath?

A. Cranial nerve X
B. Common carotid artery
C. Internal jugular vein
D. Cranial nerve IX

5. Which of the following spinal dermatome level corresponds with the landmark of the inguinal ligament?

A. T10
B. L1
C. L3
D. L5

6. Which of the following nerves innervates the deltoid?

A. Radial
B. Cranial nerve XI
C. Subscapular
D. Axillary

7. Wrist extensors are primarily controlled by what nerve?

A. Radial
B. Ulnar
C. Median
D. Tibial

8. Adductor pollicis in the hand is controlled by which nerve?

A. Radial
B. Ulnar
C. Median
D. Tibial

9. Which of the following arteries is the most frequent site of coronary artery stenosis?

A. LCA
B. RCA
C. LAD
D. PD

10. Which of the following nerves is not directly linked to the L2-L3 spinal level?

A. Tibial
B. Obturator
C. Femoral

11. Which of the following passageways contain the maxillary nerve and blood vessels?

A. Stylomastoid foramin
B. Inferior orbital fissure
C. Foramen ovale
D. Carotid canal

12. Which of the following passageways contain the facial nerve and blood vessels?

A. Stylomastoid foramin
B. Inferior orbital fissure
C. Foramen ovale
D. Carotid canal

13. Which of the following passageways contain the internal carotid artery?

A. Foramen rotundum
B. Condylar canal
C. Foramen ovale
D. Carotid canal

14. Which of the following is the most common site of disc herniation?

A. C6-7
B. T12-L1
C. L4-5
D. L5-S1

15. Which of the following ligaments is not found in the knee?

A. Patellar ligament
B. Oblique popliteal ligament
C. Arcuate popliteal ligament
D. Deltoid ligament

16. Which of the following nerves innervates the teres minor muscle?

A. Subscapular nerve
B. Suprascapular nerve
C. Axillary nerve
D. Pectoral nerve

17. Which of the following nerves innervates the pronator teres muscle?

A. Radial
B. Median
C. Musculocutaneous
D. Ulnar

18. Which of the following supplies the muscles of the perineum?

A. Pudendal nerve
B. Sciatic nerve
C. Femoral nerve
D. Tibial nerve

19. Which of the following eye muscles rotates the eye downward and away from midline?

A. Inferior oblique
B. Superior oblique
C. Inferior rectus
D. Superior rectus

20. Which of the following eye muscles rotates the eye upward and toward midline?

A. Inferior oblique
B. Superior oblique
C. Inferior rectus
D. Superior rectus

Answer Key
1. A
2. B
3. D
4. D
5. B
6. D
7. A
8. B
9. C
10. A
11. B
12. A
13. D
14. D
15. D
16. C
17. B
18. A
19. B
20. D

Online Education Center | Biochemistry | Behavioral Science

Integumentary Practice Questions [by landon]

Fri, 11 Jun 2010 08:06:20 -0000

Online Education Center:: Integumentary Practice Questions

Online Education Center | Biochemistry | Behavioral Science

Integumentary Practice Questions

1. Which of the following is a longitudinal incision through eschar and down to subcutaneous tissue?

A. Escharotomy
B. Dehiscence
C. Transection
D. Escharotic's procedure

2. Which of the following types of wounds match the criteria: plantar aspect of foot, met heads, heel?

A. Arterial
B. Plantar
C. Venous
D. Diabetic

3. Which of the following terms matches: water and electrolytes (clear)?

A. Exudate
B. Transudate
C. Serosanguineous
D. Induration

4. Which of the following edema assessment levels corresponds with: Depression resolving in 10-15 sec?

A. +1
B. +2
C. +3
D. +4

5. Which of the following terms matches the statement: to increase the fibrous element; to make hard as in the presence of cellulites?

A. Induration
B. Necrosis
C. Eschar
D. Maceration

6. Following the rule of nines. What percent would a third degree burn to the entire arm and back cover?

A. 28%
B. 27%
C. 20%
D. 18%

7. Which of the following matches the defintion: A full thickness skin loss involving damage or necrosis of subcutaneous tissue that may extend down to but not through underlying fascia, infection and/or necrosis may be present?

A. Stage I wound
B. Stage II wound
C. Stage III wound
D. Stage IV wound

8. Which of the following types of wound is indicated by the definition: relatively painless, decreased with elevation?

A. Arterial
B. Plantar
C. Venous
D. Diabetic

9. Which of the following matches the definition: The loss of circulatory fluids into interstitial spaces?

A. Hypovolemia
B. Necrosis
C. Eschar
D. Maceration

10. An emollient has a/an _____ effect.

A. Pruritic
B. Antipruritic
C. Rupture
D. Impetigo

11. Which of the following is the outermost layer of the epidermis?

A. Stratum spinosum
B. Stratum corneum
C. Stratum granulosum
D. Stratum basale

12. Which of the following is the deepest layer of the epidermis?

A. Stratum spinosum
B. Stratum corneum
C. Stratum granulosum
D. Stratum basale

13. Which of the following is beneath the stratum corneum?

A. Stratum spinosum
B. Stratum corneum
C. Stratum granulosum
D. Stratum basale

14. Vitamin D is created from _________ by skin cells.

A. Dehydrocholesterol
B. Cholesterol
C. Hydrocholesterol
D. Hydrodermis

15. Which of the following is another name for blackheads associated with acme?

A. Pustules
B. Sebaceous
C. Eccrine
D. Comedones

16. Which of the following identifies skin from a cadaver used in a burn graft?

A. Homograft
B. Autograft
C. Allograft
D. Xenograft

17. Which of the following is a disease characterized by hyperactive sebaceous glands and often associated with dandruff?

A. Keloid
B. Seborrhea
C. Eczema
D. Urticaria

18. Which of the following is a disease characterized by the presence of hives?

A. Keloid
B. Seborrhea
C. Eczema
D. Urticaria

19. Which of the following is a disease characterized by a skin rash that is blistering and itchy?

A. Keloid
B. Seborrhea
C. Eczema
D. Urticaria

20. Sebaceous glands secrete _______.

A. Sebum
B. Impetigo
C. Serous
D. Sirius

Answer Key
1. A
2. D
3. B
4. B
5. A
6. B
7. C
8. B
9. A
10. A
11. B
12. D
13. C
14. A
15. D
16. A
17. B
18. D
19. C
20. A

Online Education Center | Biochemistry | Behavioral Science

Lymphatic System Practice Questions [by landon]

Fri, 11 Jun 2010 08:03:33 -0000

Online Education Center:: Lymphatic System Practice Questions

Online Education Center | Biochemistry | Behavioral Science

Lymphatic System Practice Questions

1. Which of the following is not directly associated with the lymphatic pathway?

A. Lymphatic trunk
B. Collecting duct
C. Subclavian vein
D. Carotid arteries

2. The thymus is responsible for secreting _____ from epithelial cells.

A. Thymosin
B. Growth hormone
C. Macrophages
D. Plasma cells

3. Which of the following types of cytokines is responsible for the growth and maturation of B cells?

A. Interleukin-1
B. Interleukin-2
C. Interleukin-4
D. Interleukin-7

4. Which of the following types of immunoglobulins is the most responsible for promoting allergic reactions?

A. IgA
B. IgM
C. IgD
D. IgE

5. Which of the following types of immunoglobulins is located on the surface of most B-lymphocytes?

A. IgA
B. IgM
C. IgD
D. IgE

6. Which of the following types of immunoglobulins does not cross the barrier between mother and infant in the womb?

A. IgA
B. IgM
C. IgD
D. IgE

7. Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease?

A. Graves disease
B. Myasthenia gravis
C. Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus
D. Alzheimer's disease

8. T-cell activation requires a/an _______ cell.

A. Activation
B. Accessory
C. Plasma
D. Helper

9. The thymus is located with the _______.

A. Mediastinum
B. Peristinum
C. Epistinum
D. Endostinum

10. Which of the following statements is false regarding the spleen?

A. Divided up into lobules
B. Similar to a large lymph node
C. Contains macrophages
D. Limited blood within the lobules

11. Which of the following is not considered a central location of lymph nodes?

A. Cervical
B. Axillary
C. Inguinal
D. Tibial

12. Lymphocytes that reach the thymus become _____.

A. T-cells
B. B-cells
C. Plasma cells
D. Beta cells

13. Lymphocytes that do not reach the thymus become _____.

A. T-cells
B. B-cells
C. Plasma cells
D. Beta cells

14. Which of the following is associated with a B cell deficiency?

A. Job's syndrome
B. Chronic granulomatous disease
C. Bruton's agammaglobulinemia
D. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

15. Which of the following is the autoantibody for systemic lupus?

A. Anti-microsomal
B. Antinuclear antibodies
C. Anti-gliadin
D. Anti-histone

16. The TB skin test is an example of ______.

A. Delayed hypersensitivity
B. Serum sickness
C. Cytotoxic reaction
D. Arthus reaction

17. Which of the following types of cytokines is secreted by macrophages?

A. IL-1
B. IL-2
C. IL-3
D. IL-4

18. Which of the following types of immunoglobulins binds complement?

A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgG

19. Which of the following is a key component of cytotoxic T cells?

A. CD2
B. CD4
C. CD8
D. CD10

20. Which of the following is not a primary target group of T cells?

A. Viruses
B. Toxins
C. Fungi
D. TB

Answer Key
1. D
2. A
3. C
4. D
5. C
6. A
7. D
8. B
9. A
10. D
11. D
12. A
13. B
14. C
15. B
16. A
17. A
18. D
19. C
20. B

Online Education Center | Biochemistry | Behavioral Science